50 [Updated] Railway Engineering Lab Viva Questions and Answers

Railway Engineering LAB VIVA Questions and Answers:

1.Importance of Reconnaissance Survey
2.Permanent Way?
3.Gauge? Classification?
4.Types of Rails
5.Check Rail vs Guard Rails
6.Creep and its effects
7.Sleeper and Sleeper Density
8.Ballast and its function
9.Gradient
10.Degree of Curve
11.Super Elevation for different gauges
12.Points and Crossings
13.Types of Stations
14.Railway Yards
15.Signalling

Railway Engineering LAB VIVA Questions and Answers 

20 [Top] Hydraulics Lab Viva Questions And Answers PDF

HYDRAULICS LAB VIVA Questions and Answers :-

1. Specific Weight of Water?
2. Capillarity of Water
3. Fluid Pressure
4. Pascal’s law
5. Measurement of Liquid Pressure
6. Explain: Discharge, Velocity
7. Fundamental Equation or Continuity Equation of Liquid Flow
8. Types of Flow
9. Energy of Liquid in Motion
10. Total head?
11. Bernoulli’s Theorem
12. Measurements of Discharges in Pipes
13. Notch vs Weir
14. Flow through Pipes
15. Flow through Open Channels
16. Chezy’s Equation
17. Types of Channels
18. Economical Cross Section of Channels
19. Importance of Reynolds Number
20. Specific Gravity and Critical Depth

HYDRAULICS LAB VIVA Questions and Answers 

20 [Top] Highway Engineering Lab Viva Questions with Answers

HIGHWAY Engineering LAB VIVA Questions with Answers :-

1. Classification of Roads
2. Express ways vs National Highways
3. Factors affecting alignment of Roads
4. Factors affecting alignment of Hill Roads
5. Economical Route
6. Gradient vs Super elevation
7. Sight Distance and Types
8. Curves
9. Transition Curves vs Vertical Curves
10. Road Patterns
11. Road Intersections9ooo
12. Components of City Road
13. WBM Road
14. Camber vs Super Elevation
15. Grade Separators

Highway Engineering LAB VIVA Questions ::

40 [Top] Estimating & Costing LAB VIVA Questions and Answers

Estimating & Costing LAB VIVA Questions and Answers :-

1.What is Estimate?
2.Units of measurements for various items of building construction
3.List out various Items of building Construction?
4.List out types of Approximate Estimate?
5.What is detailed estimate?
6.Data required for Detailed Estimate?
7.What is abstract estimate?
8.Methods of Detailed Estimate?
9.What is Analysis of Rates?
10.What is Preliminary Estimate?
11.Estimate the quantities of brickwork for a wall of 4m long, 3m high and 30cm thick.
12.Define Quantity Surveyor?
13.Duties of Quantity Surveyor?
14.What is Lead & Lift?
15.The actual expenditure incurred in the construction of a school building which have a total length of main walls 140m is Rs.4.97lakhs.Estimate the approximate cost of a similar school building which will have 180m length of main walls.
16.Write various formulas used to calculate Volume of Earthwork?
17.What is Floor Area?
18.What is Carpet Area?
19.What is Plinth Area?
20.What is Tender?
21.What is Contract?
22.Types of Contract?
23.What is Specification?
24.What is Arbitration?
25.Explain EMD?
26.What is SSR?
27.Factors influencing Value of building?
28.Purpose of Valuation?
29.Scrap Value vs Salvage Value?
30.Define Sinking Fund?
31.Methods of Valuation?
32.What is depreciation?
33.Various methods of depreciation?
34.What is M. Book?
35.What is BBS?
36.Weight of 16mm dia. Steel bar of 1m long?
37.Density of Steel and Cement?
38.Table Format of Detailed Estimate?
39.Table Format of Abstract Estimate?
40.Table Format of BBS?

Estimating & Costing LAB VIVA Questions and Answers ::

30 [Top] Environmental Engineering lab viva questions and answers pdf

Environmental Engineering LAB VIVA Questions with Answers :-

1. List out Experiments on Water?
2. What is Reagents?
3. Explain Acidity Test?
4. Types of Acidity?
5. Explain Alkaline Test?
6. List out materials contributed towards Alkalinity?
7. How to do know about Acidity or Alkalinity of water?
8. Explain Chloride Test?
9. Effects of Chloride presence in Water?
10. Explain Total Hardness Test?
11. Hardness of water caused due the presence of which material?
12. Explain pH Test?
13. Explain Electrical Conductivity Test?
14. Explain Turbidity Test?
15. How to measure Turbidity of water?
16. What is Coagulant? Explain with Example?
17. What is the use of Chlorine?
18. How to determine Total Solids in water?
19. How to determine Total Dissolved Solids?
20. How to determine Total Fixed and Volatile Solids?
21. Explain DO Test?
22. Explain BOD Test?
23. What is the use of Flame Photometer?
24. What is need to UV Test?
25. What is Residual Chlorine?
26. Effects of Fluoride presence in Water?
27. The acceptable value of pH of potable water?
28. Water with hardness upto 50 ppm is known as?
29. Bleaching Powder is mixed in water for?
30. Potable water means?

Environmental Engineering LAB VIVA Questions and Answers ::

30 [Top] Engineering Mechanics Lab Viva Questions and answers pdf

Engineering Mechanics LAB VIVA Questions and Answers :-

1.Statics vs Dynamics
2.Classification of Force System
3.Newtons Law – I, II, III, Parallelogram Law, Triangle Law, Polygon Law
4.Varignon’s theorem
5.Lami’s Theorem
6.Concurrent Forces vs Non-Concurrent Forces
7.Coplanar Forces vs Non-Coplanar Forces
8.How to find magnitude and direction of a Resultant for a given force system
9.How to find Moment about a particular point in Parallel Force System
10.What are Equilibrium Equations
11.Define Velocity, Acceleration, Force, Couple, Moment, Work, Energy, and Power
12.Define Centroid, Centre of Gravity
13.Define Moment of Inertia, Polar Moment of Inertia, Mass Moment of Inertia
14.Find Centroid of given figure (for both Simple and Composite)
15.Find Moment of Inertia?
16.What is Parallel Axis Theorem?
17.What is Perpendicular Axis Theorem?
18.Explain about Dynamics?
19.Kinematics vs Kinetics?
20.Rectilinear Motion vs Curvilinear Motion
21.Equations of Rectilinear Motion
22. – do – under Gravity
23.Equations of Curvilinear Motion
24.Explain about Projectile
25.Find Work done, Energy, and Power of a given a problem

Engineering Mechanics LAB VIVA Questions and Answers ::

20 [Top] Engineering Graphics VIVA-VOCE QUESTIONS And Answers PDF

ENGINEERING GRAPHICS LAB VIVA Questions with Answers :-

1. What do you mean by orthographic and oblique projection?
2. What are principle plane of projection?
3. What do you mean by four quadrants?
4. What do you mean by first angle and third angle projection systems?
5. Normally projection in 1st angle or 3rd angle projection system. Why not in IInd and IVth angle projection systems.
6. Students should know to draw the projection of a point, when point lies in either of four quadrants.
7. What do you mean by HT & VT of a line and a plane? What is difference in the shape of trace of line and trace of a plane.
8. What are different types of planes?
9. What are auxiliary planes? What is use of these planes?
10. What is difference between line, plane and solid?
11. What is difference between prism and pyramid?
12. What do you mean by right & regular prism, pyramid, cone & cylinder?
13. What is difference between cone & cylinder?
14. What do you mean by generator of a cone?
15. What is difference between frustum of a cone and truncated cone?
16. Why a section of a section of machine part is taken.
17. Students should know to find true length and true inclination of a line when projection of a line when projections of a line are given and vice-versa.
18. What are standards specification of drawing board, drawing sheets, and pencils.
19. What is difference between true inclination of a line and apparent angles.

ENGINEERING GRAPHICS LAB VIVA Questions ::

50 [Top] Concrete Technology Laboratory Manual And Viva Question With Answers

Concrete Technology LAB VIVA Questions :-

1.    List out various tests on Cement?
2.    List out various tests on Fine Aggregate?
3.    List out various tests on Coarse Aggregate?
4.    List out various tests on Bitumen?
5.    What do you know about NDT?
6.    List out various equipment used in NDT?
7.    Vicat Apparatus is used for?
8.    Initial Setting Time of Cement?
9.    Final Setting Time of Cement?
10.  List out Grades of Cement available in Market?
11.  Apparatus used for Soundness of Cement?
12.  Equipment used for Abrasion Test?
13.  Equipment used for Attrition Test?
14.  Workability Means?
15.  List out Workability Tests?
16.  Slump value required for RCC Slab?
17.  What is Segregation of concrete?
18.  List out various sizes of Coarse Aggregate used in Concrete?
19.  Equipment used to test Compressive Strength of Concrete?
20.  Size of Concrete Cubes?
21.  What is the standard w/c value for nominal mix of concrete?
22.  Density of Concrete?
23.  No. of Cube samples required for testing Compressive Strength for 100 m3 of concrete?
24.  List out Shape Tests on Coarse Aggregate?
25.  Aggregate Impact value of material A is 15 and that of B is 35. Which one is better for surface course?
26.  The abrasion value found from Los Angeles test for two aggregates A and B are 50% and 38% respectively. Which aggregate is harder?
27.  Two materials have abrasion values 3 and 10 respectively. Which one is harder and why?
28.  Define flash and fire points of Bitumen?
29.  Define specific gravity?
30.  What do you understand by the term 80/100 bitumen?
31.  What is softening point?
32.  If material A has softening point of 56 and B has 42 which binder is good and why?
33.  List the factors that affect the result of a ductility test?
34.  Explain the significance of ductility test?
35.  Explain the term viscosity?
36.  Explain aggregate crushing value. How would you express?
37.  Aggregate crushing value of material A is 40 and that of B is 25. Which one is better and why?
38.  How is aggregate impact value expressed?
39.  Aggregate impact value material A is 20 and that of B is 45. Which one is better for surface course? Why?
40. Explain ductility of Bitumen and its significance?

Concrete Technology LAB VIVA Questions with Answers Pdf ::

50 [Top] Building Materials and Construction LAB VIVA Questions and Answers

Building Construction and Materials LAB VIVA Questions and Answers :-

1.Types of Foundation
2.Brick Masonary vs Stone Masonary
3.Types of bonds used in Brick Masonary
4.Classification of Stone Masonary
5.General Principles of Supervision of Masonary Work
6.Plastering vs Pointing
7.Scaffolding
8.Lintel vs Arches
9.Staircase
10.Quality of Bricks
11.Characteristics of Good Stone
12.Characteristics of Good Timber
13.Cement, Types of Cement
14.Ingredients of Cement
15.Types of Bricks
16.Distemper vs Snowcem
17.PVC vs Stoneware
18.Seasoning of Timber
19.Tests on Bricks
20.Construction Joints

Building Construction and Materials LAB VIVA Questions and Answers ::

50 Basic AUTOCAD Lab Viva Questions And Answers PDF

1. What is meant by AutoCAD?
AutoCAD is one of the cad system software introduced in dec 1982 by Autodesk ltd in Sausallia,California of USA. It has hit the technical world like shock wave revolutionizing the manner of drawing preparation.

2. What is the diff between CAD & CADD?
CAD-computer aided design
CADD-computer aided design and drafting

3. What are the applications of CAD?
Product Drawings
Drawings of Operation Cards
Solid Modelling
Design of Forging and Trimming Dies
Design of Tooling, Equipment and Gages.

4. Define absolute co-ordinates?
Design of machine elements, CNC machine tools, robotics etc Panel design and circuit layout Mapping ,building plans, contour plotting and structural drawing Interior design and modeling from rejinpaul.com Values locating a point in space that describe its displacement from origin (0,0,0)point of the drawing.

5. Define polar co ordinates.
Values are locating a point in space that describes its location relative to the last point picked as defined by an angle and s distance.

6. Define angular dimension?
A dimension that measures the angle between two lines or the angle inscribed by an arc segment.

7. Define aligned dimension?
A linear dimension measuring the distance between two points. The dimension line for an aligned dimension is parallel to a line between points.

8. What is Bylayer?
A value that can be assigned to colours and line types so that objects receive their colour and line type properties according to the layer they are on.

9. What is command line?
A text window at the bottom of the screen that’s displays command: prompt. This is where you see what you are entering through the keyboard. Also called the command window.

10. What is command: prompt:
A prompt at the command line, when no commands are currently running.

11. What is cross hair cursor?
A form of the cursor that consists of a horizontal line and a vertical line intersecting at their midpoints, resembling the crosshair in a sighting device.

12. Define current UCS?
A group of settings and values that control the appreance of dimensions.
from rejinpaul.com The user co-ordinate system that is active in a drawing. It determines the positive X,Y and Z direction.

13. What is. dwg?
The file extension and format for the standard AUTOcad drawing.

14. Define graphics window?
The appearance of your screen when AUTOcad is running. It consists of the drawing area and surrounding toolbars, menu bars the command window and the status bar.

15. Define line type?
The style of appearance of a line. AUTOcad styles include continues, dashed, dash dot. And so on.

16. What is a hatch patterns?
A pattern of lines dots and other shapes that fills in a closed area.

17. Define MIRROR?
A command that makes a copy of selected objects and flips the copy around a specified line to produce a reciprocal image of those objects.

18. What is an ortho mode?
An on/off setting that, when on forces lines to be drawn and objects to be moved in a horizontal or vertical direction only.

19. What are the advantages of CAD?
Greater productivity of the designer, improvement of design quality Easier design, calculation and analysis, quicker rate producing drawings, more accuracy of drawings, colour graphics is possible.

20. What is an object snap mode?
Any of a set of tools precisely picking strategic points on an object, including end point, midpoint, center, and so on. It is casually called osnap.

21. Define block?
The description of an association of Auto “CAD” objects that is stored with the drawing file and include a name, an insertion point, and a listening of objects in the association.

22. Define relative co-ordinates?
Values are locating a point in space that describes its displacement from last point picked in the drawing rather than from the origin.



AUTOCAD VIVA Questions and Answers pdf free download
1. What is meant by engineering drawing?
2. What is meant by solid geometry?
3. How many axes do Cartesian coordinate system has?
4. What is meant by CAD?
5. What are the different softwares used for CAD?
6. What are the important hardware systems used for CAD?
7. What is absolute coordinates?
8. What is the difference between chamfer and Fillet?
9. Which is the direction for positive angle?
10. Which is the direction of negative angle?
11. What is meant by Cartesian coordinate system?
12. What is meant by dimensioning?
13. What is an ortho mode?
14. What is the use of OFFSET command?
15. What is the difference between UNDO & REDO?
16. What are the different methods for drawing an arc?
17. How to activate isometric axes in CAD?
18. Which is the latest version of SolidsWorks?
19. What is the use of extruded feature in Solidsworks?
20. How can we make a hole in a solid rectangle using Solidsworks?
21. How do you change a dimension value in solidsworks?
22. Is it possible to make a feature using an overdefined sketch?
23. What are the advantages of CAD software’s?
24. What do you meant by GUI?
25. States some of the tool bars used in CAD?
26. States some of the commonly used commands in Cad software’s?
27. What is the usage of ZOOM command?
28. What is need for setting LIMITS?
29. Differentiate First angle & Third angle Projection?
30. Differentiate orthographic and isometric projections?
31. What are the applications of CAD?
32. Define polar co ordinates.
33. Define aligned dimension?
34. What is. dwg?
35. Define MIRROR?
36. What is a hatch patterns?
37. What is an object snap mode?
38. Define block?
39. Define relative co-ordinates?
40. What is the use of TRIM command?
41. What are the uses of Layer?
42. How can explode a Block?
43. What is the use of ARRAY command?
44. What is the use of EXTEND Command?
45. Define a polyline?
46. What is meant by a context menu in a CAD software?
47. Name the main components of a CAD GUI?
48. What is the use of MIRROR command?
49. What is the difference between linear dimension and aligned dimension?
50. What are the advantages of CAD software?

50 [Top] Waste Water Engineering Multiple Choice Questions And Answers PDF

Here are top 50 Waste Water Engineering Multiple choice questions and answers are given just below to them. These sample Waste Water Engineering objective type questions are framed by experts. who train for Learn Waste Water Engineering Online VIVA Questions to give you an idea of Waste Water Engineering mcqs which may be asked in interview. We have taken full care to give correct answers for all the questions. Do comment your thoughts. Happy Job Hunting!

Q No: 1 For a continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks

A. Width of the tank is normally kept about 6 m
B. Length of the tank is normally kept 4 to 5 times the width
C. Maximum horizontal flow velocity is limited to 0.3 m/minute
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 2 The asbestos cement sewers are

A. Light in weight
B. Not structurally strong to bear large compressive stress
C. Susceptible to corrosion by sulphuric acid
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 3 For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that

A. Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec, is maintained at its minimum flow
B. A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec, is maintained at its maximum flow
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
ANS: C

Q No: 4Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running full at maximum discharge
B. The sewer pipes of sizes greater than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running 2/3rd or 3/4th full at maximum discharge
C. The minimum design velocity of sewer pipes is taken as 0.8 m/sec
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 5 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Maximum daily flow = 2 times the average daily flow
B. Maximum daily flow = average daily flow
C. Sewers are designed for minimum permissible velocity at minimum flow
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 6 Bottom openings 15 cm × 15 cm in the standing baffle wall are provided

A. 15 cm c/c
B. 22.5 cm c/c
C. 30 cm c/c
D. 50 cm c/c
ANS: B

Q No: 7 The pressure exerted by

A. The sewage when running full from inside, is called internal pressure
B. The internal pressure if any, causes tensile stress in the pipe material
C. Pressure sewers are designed to be safe in tension
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 8 For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before putting them to use, is
A. Water test
B. Smoke test
C. Straightness test
D. All the above
ANS: B

Q No: 9No treatment of the sewage is given if dilution factor is 

A. Less than 150
B. Between 150 to 200
C. Between 200 to 300
D. More than 500
ANS: D

Q No: 10 Which of the following pumps in used to pump sewage solids with liquid sewage without clogging the pump is?

A. Centrifugal pump
B. Pneumatic ejector
C. Reciprocating pump
D. None of these
ANS: A

Q No: 11 Acid regression stage of sludge digestion at a temperature 21°C extends over a period of

A. 15 days

B. 30 days

C. 60 days

D. 90 days ANS: D

Q No: 12 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Small sewers are cleaned by flushing

B. Medium sewers are cleaned by cane rodding

C. Medium sewers may be cleaned by pills

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 13 The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the sewage, is

A. Alum

B. Ferric chloride

C. Ferric sulphate

D. Chlorinated copperas

ANS: A

Q No: 14 The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively piled above the ground to form a mound, is called

A. A heap

B. Plateau

C. Windrow

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 15 If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in the upper layers of the sewer forms an explosive, the sewer certainly contains

A. Hydrogen sulphide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Methane

D. Oxygen

ANS: C

Q No: 16 The gas which may cause explosion in sewers, is

A. Carbondioxide

B. Methane

C. Ammonia

D. Carbon monoxide

ANS: B

Q No: 17 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The water supply pipes carry pure water free from solid particles

B. The water supply pipes get clogged if flow velocity is less than self cleansing velocity

C. The sewers may be carried up and down the hills and valleys

D. The sewer pipes are generally laid along level hills

 ANS: A

Q No: 18 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic conditions, is called sludge digestion

B. Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank

C. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide

D. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% methane ANS: C

Q No: 19 The sewer pipes

A. Carry sewage as gravity conduits

B. Are designed for generating self-cleansing velocities at different discharge

C. Should resist the wear and tear caused due to abrasion

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 20 The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m per sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is

A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hour and 30 minutes
D. 2 hours
ANS: D

Q No: 21 depends upon The Chezy’s constant C in the formula V = C
A. Size of the sewer
B. Shape of the sewer
C. Roughness of sewer surface
D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 22 The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is generally called

A. Over flow rate

B. Surface loading

C. Over flow velocity

D. All the above ANS: D

Q No: 23 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following for allowing workers to enter sewers

A. The particular manhole and one manhole on upstream and one manhole on downstream should remain open for 30 minutes

B. Proper tests for the presence of poisonous gases must be carried out C. The men entering the manhole should be advised to smoke in the sewer

D. Warning signals should be erected

ANS: C

Q No: 24 For the open drain (N = 0.025) shown in the below figure, the discharge is

A. 26.88 cumecs

B. 27.88 cumecs

C. 28.88 cumecs

D. 29.88 cumecs ANS: C

Q No: 25 To prevent settling down of sewage both at the bottom and on the sides of a large sewer, self-cleaning velocity recommended for Indian conditions, is

A. 0.50 m/sec

B. 0.60 m/sec

C. 0.70 m/sec

D. 0.75 m/sec

ANS: D

Q No: 26 Assertion A.: The determination of pH value of sewerage is important.
Reason (R): The efficiency of certain treatment methods depends upon the availability of pH value.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true ANS: A

Q No: 27 The normal values of over flow rates for sedimentation tanks using coagulant, ranges between

A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day

B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day

C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day

D. 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day

ANS: C

Q No: 28 The drainage area of a town is 12 hectares. Its 40% area is hard pavement ( K = 0.85), the 40% area is unpaved streets (K = 0.20) and the remaining is wooded areas (K = 0.15). Assuming the time of concentration for the areas as 30 minutes and using the formula Ps = 900/(t + 60) the maximum run off is

A. 0.10 cumec

B. 0.12 cumec

C. 0.15 cumec

D. 0.20 cumec

ANS: C

Q No: 29 Sewer pipes are designed for maximum discharge with 25% to 33% vacant cross-sectional area for

A. Unexpected large scale infiltration of stream water

B. Unexpected increase in the population

C. Under estimates of maximum and average flows

D. All of the above

ANS: D

Q No: 30 The rational formula for peak drainage discharge, was evolved by

A. Fruhling

B. Lloyd David

C. Kuichling

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 31 The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called

A. Main sewer

B. Outfall sewer

C. Branch sewer

D. House sewer

ANS: B

Q No: 32 During preliminary treatment of a sewage

A. Oil and grease are removed from skimming tanks

B. Floating materials are removed by screening

C. Girt and sand are removed by girt chambers

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 33 For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2 minutes, the length of the tank, is

A. 16 m

B. 20 m

C. 24 m

D. 30 m

ANS: C

Q No: 34 Dry weather flow is:

A. Average daily rate of flow

B. Average monthly rate of flow

C. Average annual rate of flow

D. Water supply allowance per capita

ANS: D

Q No: 35 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage

B. The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops

C. The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called sewerage

D. The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage system

ANS: D

Q No: 36 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The maximum rate of storm runoff is called peak drainage discharge

B. Rational method of estimating peak run off, may be used precisely for areas less than 50 hectares

C. The period after which the entire area starts contributing to the runoff, is called the time of concentration

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 37 If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage flow

A. Q = [(4 + )/(18 + )] q
B. Q = [(18 + P)/(4 + )] q
C. Q = [(18 + )/(4 + )] q
D. Q = [(5 + )/((15 + )] q
ANS: C

Q No: 38 ¾th or ¼th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum discharge for

A. Low estimates of the average and maximum flows

B. Large scale infiltration of storm water

C. Unexpected increase in population

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 39 If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in a manhole extinguishes within 5 minutes, the sewer certainly contains

A. Hydrogen sulphide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Methane

D. Oxygen

ANS: B

Q No: 40 Hydraulic mean radius is

A. Mean radius of sewer

B. Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes

C. Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross -sections

D. Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter

ANS: D

Q No: 41 If the depth of flow in a circular sewer is 1/4th of its diameter D, the wetted perimeter is

A. /2

B. /4

C. /3

D. D

ANS: C

Q No: 42 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen

B. Aerobic bacteria flourish in the presence of oxygen

C. Facultative bacteria flourish with or without oxygen

D. All the above

ANS: D

The Brake Horse power of the motor (efficiency 60%) required for a pump of capacity 0.075 cumecfor a total lift of 12 m, is

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

Q No: 44 Aerobic bacterias

A. Flourish in the presence of free oxygen

B. Consume organic matter as their food

C. Oxidise organic matter in sewage

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 45 At the junction of sewers

A. Top of smaller sewer is kept lower

B. Top of larger sewer is kept lower

C. Tops of both the sewers are at the same level

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 46 Traps

A. Are water seals which prevent the entry of foul gases

B. Are used to trap the rats entering sewers

C. Dissolve the foul gases

D. Create symphonic action to increase the quick disposal of sewerage ANS: A

Q No: 47 The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of organic matter is used, are called

A. Imhoff tanks

B. Trickling filters

C. Sludge sedimentation tanks

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 48 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. In treated sewage, 4 ppm of D.O. is essential

B. Only very fresh sewage contains some dissolved oxygen

C. The solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% that is in distilled water

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 49 If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity, is

A. 1 in 60

B. 1 in 100

C. 1 in 120

D. None of these ANS: B

Q No: 50 The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as

A. A trunk sewer

B. An outfall sewer

C. A main sewer

D. An intercepting sewer

ANS: A

Real Time Waste Water Engineering - Civil Engineering Objective type Questions for freshers

50 [Top] Engineering Economics Multiple Choice Questions And Answers PDF

Here are top 200 Engineering Economics Multiple choice questions and answers are given just below to them. These sample Engineering Economics objective type questions are framed by experts. who train for Learn Engineering Economics Online VIVA Questions to give you an idea of Engineering Economics mcqs which may be asked in interview. We have taken full care to give correct answers for all the questions. Do comment your thoughts. Happy Job Hunting!

1. First Benchmark Publishing’s gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket, determine the percent of sales is their profit after taxes?
A. 21 %
B. 20 %
C. 19 %
D. 18 %

2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same price after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent?

A. 6.89 %
B. 6.65 %
C. 6.58 %
D. 6.12 %

3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000.

A. 28.33 %
B. 29.17 %
C. 30.12 %
D. 30.78 %

4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces. With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many months will Mr. Camus be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months

5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?

A. 23.5 %
B. 24.7 %
C. 25.0 %
D. 25.8 %

6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. 5,937.50
B. 5,873.20
C. 5,712.40
D. 5,690.12

7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.

A. 12.19 %
B. 12.03 %
C. 11.54 %
D. 10.29 %

8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67 %
B. 4.00 %
C. 4.15 %
D. 4.25 %

9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02 %
B. 16.28 %
C. 16.32 %
D. 16.47 %

10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50 %
B. 11.75 %
C. 11.95 %
D. 12.32 %

11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07 %
B. 12.34 %
C. 12.67 %
D. 12.87 %

12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review and Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,000
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100

13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount rate or often referred to as the “banker’s discount”.

A. 13.15 %
B. 13.32 %
C. 13.46 %
D. 13.73 %

14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90 %
B. 3.92 %
C. 3.95 %
D. 3.98 %

15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?

A. P39.01
B. P39.82
C. P39.45
D. P39.99

16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective rate of money?

A. 9.01 %
B. 9.14 %
C. 9.31 %
D. 9.41 %

17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61 %
B. 19.44 %
C. 19.31 %
D. 19.72 %

18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07 %
B. 8.12 %
C. 8.16 %
D. 8.24 %

19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35 % compounded annually
B. 11.90 % compounded annually
C. 12.20 % compounded annually
D. 11.60 % compounded annually

20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest.

A. 11.89 %
B. 12.00 %
C. 12.08 %
D. 12.32 %

21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.7 years
C. 14.2 years
D. 15.3 years

22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years

23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42

24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64
B. P1,459.64
C. P1,345.98
D. P1,945.64

26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P 62.44
B. P44.55
C. P54.66
D. P37.56

27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%.

A. P 150.56
B. P 152.88
C. P 153.89
D. P 151.09

28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P 3,260.34
B. P 3,280.34
C. P 3,270.34
D. P 3,250.34

29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at maturity?

A. P 15,030.03
B. P 20,113.57
C. P 18,289.05
D. P 16,892.34

30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:

A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000

B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an extension to be added to cost P 200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation to be neglected?

A. P 19,122.15
B. P 19,423.69
C. P 19,518.03
D. P 19,624.49

31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %?

A. P 727.17
B. P 717.17
C. P 714.71
D. P 731.17

32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume i= 6% annually.

A. P 1,290.34
B. P 1,185.54
C. P 1,107.34
D. P 1,205.74

33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?

A. P 2,500.57
B. P 2,544.45
C. P 2,540.56
D. P 2,504.57

34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P 7,654.04
B. P 7,731.29
C. P 7,420.89
D. P 7,590.12

35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.

A. P 43,600.10
B. P 43,489.47
C. P 43,263.91
D. P 43,763.20

36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P 142,999.08
B. P 143,104.89
C. P 142,189.67
D. P 143,999.08

37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?

A. P 6,999.39
B. P 6,292.93
C. P 6,222.39
D. P 6,922.93

38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end of the 4th year?

A. P 4,880.00
B. P 4,820.00
C. P 4,860.00
D. P 4,840.00

39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.

A. P 1,122.70
B. P 1,144.81
C. P 1,133.78
D. P 1,155.06

41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of 10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P 222.67
B. P 212.90
C. P 236.20
D. P 231.56

42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500. What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?

A. P 2,000.00
B. P 2,100.00
C. P 2,200.00
D. P 2,300.00

43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.

A. 7 eyars
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years

44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-years digit method

A. P 3,279.27
B. P 3,927.27
C. P 3,729.27
D. P 3,792.72

45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P 18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P 9,358.41
B. P 9,228.45
C. P 9,250.00
D. P 9,308.45

46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion charge during the year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing depletion.

A. $ 5,000,000.00
B. $ 5,010,000.00
C. $ 5,025,000.00
D. $ 5,050,000.00

47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76 each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hour per unit
B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit

49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

50. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P 5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to break-even?

A. 2.590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

Answers :

1. 21 %

2. 6.65 %

3. 29.17 %

4. 12 months

5. 25.0 %

6. 5,937.50

7. 10.29 %

8. 4.00 %

9. 16.28 %

10. 11.75 %

11. 12.07 %

12. P18,000

13. 13.73 %

14. 3.90 %

15. P39.45

16. 9.14 %

17. 19.72 %

18. 8.24 %

19. 11.60 % compounded annually

20. 12.00 %

21. 14.2 years

22. 11.57 years

23. P705.42

24. Quarterly

25. P1,549.64

26. P54.66

27. P 152.88

28. P 3,260.34

29. P 15,030.03

30. P 19,624.49

31. P 717.17

32. P 1,185.54

33. P 2,504.57

34. P 7,731.29

35. P 43,763.20

36. P 143,999.08

37. P 6,922.93

38. P 4,860.00

39. 3.0%

40. P 1,144.81

41. P 236.20

42. P 2,000.00

43. 9 years

44. P 3,927.27

45. P 9,250.00

46. $ 5,000,000.00

47. 1,053

48. 1.0 hour per unit

49. 1,000 feet

50. 2,632

Real Time Engineering Economics - Civil Engineering Objective type Questions for freshers

[Top] 35 Surveying LAB VIVA Questions And Answers PDF

Real Time Surveying Interview Questions with Answers PDF

1. What is the fundamental difference between surveying and leveling?
In surveying the measurements are taken in horizontal plane, but in leveling they are taken in the vertical plane.

2. What is the fundamental difference between plane surveying and geodetic surveying?
In Plane surveying, the curvature of the earth is not considered. But in Geodetic surveying, the curvature of the earth is considered.

3. What do you mean by terms “topographical map” and cadastral map?
A map which shows the natural features of a country such as rivers, hills, roads, railways, villages, towns, etc. is known as topographical map, and one which shows the boundaries of estates, fields, houses, etc. is known as a cadastral map.

4. What is the main principle of surveying?
The fundamental principle of surveying is to work from the whole to the part.

5. How is a chain folded and unfolded?
In order to fold the chain, a chainman moves forward by pulling the chain at the middle so that two halves come side by side. Then he places the pair of links on his left hand with his right hand until the two brass handles appear at the top.
To unfold the chain: A chain man holds the two brass handles in his left hand and throws the bunch with his right hand. Then one chain man stands at a station holding one handle and another chainman moves forward by holding the other handle.

6. In a chaining operation, who is the leader and who is the follower?
The chain man at the forward end of the chain who drags the chain is known as the leader and the one at the rear end of the chain is known as the follower.

7. While chaining a line, if you have to measure through a steep sloping ground, what method should you apply?
The stepping method.

8. Two stations are not intervisible due to intervening high ground. How will you range the line?
The ranging is to be done by the reciprocal method.

9. What do you mean by normal tension?
The tension at which the measured distance is equal to the correct distance (i.e; when sag correction is neutralized by pull correction) is known as normal tension.

10. What do you mean by RF?
The ratio of the distance on the drawing to the corresponding actual length of the object is known as RF.

11. What is the difference between plain scale and diagonal scale?
The plain scale represents two successive units. The diagonal scale represents three successive units.

12. What is hypotenuse allowance?
When one chain length is measured on slopping ground then it shows a shorter distance on the horizontal distance is known as the hypotenusal allowance.

13. How many ranging rods are required to range a line?
At least three ranging rods required for direct ranging and at least four for indirect ranging.

14. What is the length of one link in a 20m chain?
The 20m chain is divided in to 100 links. So, one link is 0.2m. i.e; 20cm. long.

15. What is the Principle of chain surveying?
The Principle of chain surveying is triangulation.

16. What do you mean by triangulation?
The method of dividing an area into a number of triangles is known as triangulation.

17. Why is the triangle preferred to the quadrilateral?
The triangle is preferred just it is a simple figure which can be drawn by just knowing the lengths of its sides.

18. What is the disadvantage of using ill – conditioned triangles?
The apex point of an ill conditioned triangle is not well defined and sharp. This may cause some confusion while marking the actual point correctly on the map.

19. What is reconnaissance survey?
The preliminary inspection of the area to be surveyed is known as reconnaissance survey.

20. What is an index sketch?
During reconnaissance survey a neat hand sketch is prepared showing the frame work of the survey. This sketch is known as index sketch.

21. What is base line of survey?
Base line is the back bone of the survey. The frame work of the survey is prepared on this line.

22. How is the north line of the chain survey map fixed?
The north line of the chain survey map is fixed by taking the magnetic bearings of the base line by prismatic compass.

23. Suppose you are asked to conduct a chain survey in a crowded town what would you say?
In chain survey, whole area is to be divided into a number of triangles. But the formation of triangles is not possible in a crowded area. So I would reject the proposal.

24. What should be the maximum length of the offset?
The maximum length of the offset should be within the length of the tape used. Generally it should not be more than 15m.

25. How is a station marked on the ground?
The station is marked on the ground by a wooden peg and with a cross on the station point.

26. What is the need of a reference sketch?
If the station peg is removed by some one the station can be located accurately with the help of measurements shown in reference sketch.

27. How will you set up a perpendicular with the help of only a chain and tape?
By forming triangle in the ratio 3:4:5 using the chain and tape.

28. Who are the leader and follower when a line is being chained?
The chain man at the forward end of the chain who drags the chain is known as the leader. The one at the rear end of the chain is known as the follower.

29. Why does the field book open lengthwise?
If the field book is opened lengthwise, it becomes easy to maintain the continuation of a chain line.

30. Why is the scale always drawn in the map?
The paper on which the map is drawn may shrink or expand due to various reasons. If the scale is plotted on the map, then it is also reduced or enlarged proportionately. So the distance on the map measured by this scale remains unaltered.

31. What is it necessary to provide tallies in a chain?
Tallies are provided in a chain for the facility to counting some fractional length of the chain, when the full chain length is not required.

32. What do you mean by the term ideal triangle?
An equilateral triangle is said to be ideal.

Latest Surveying Interview Questions for freshers and Experienced pdf

[Top] 10 Engineering Drawing Interview Questions And Answers

Real Time Engineering Drawing Interview Questions with Answers PDF

1. Define engineering drawing. Why drawing is called universal language of engineers?
Engineering drawing is a graphical language of an engineer to convey one’s ideas most effectively, easily, conveniently and with high speed.
So Engineering drawing is a starting point of all engineering branches such as Mechanical, Production, Civil, Electrical, Electronics, Computer science, Chemical etc.
It is spoken, read, and written in its own way. Engineering drawing has its own grammar in terms of projections, conventional representations, types of lines, abbreviations, symbols and various geometric constructions.

2. Name different drawing instruments.
Drawing board, drawing sheet, mini-drafter, scale, pencil and sand paper block, cello-tape, eraser and compass.

3. What are the standard sizes of drawing sheets according to I.S.I. and which is suitable for drawing work?
The standard size of sheets according to I.S.I. are
A0 (1189 X 841),
A1 (841 X 594),
A2 (594 X 420),
A3 (420 X 297),
A4 (297 X 210) and
A5 (210 X 148).
Drawing sheet of size 594 X 420 i.e. A2 size is generally used by engineering students as it is very handy and easy for drawing work in class.

4. What are the ways of sharpening a pencil for good and accurate work and which type of pencil is more suitable for drawing work?
There are two ways of sharpening a pencil
a small piece of sand paper of zero grade, pasted upon a piece of wood.
Sharpener.

5. Why cello-tape is used instead of drawing pins, nowadays?
Nowadays, cello tapes are used in place of drawing pins for its practical convenience as the drafter, can be moved easily over the tape and the drawing board is spoiled by the use of drawing pins.

6. What is layout of drawing sheet?
(i) Leave the following margins
1cm on top
1cm on bottom
1cm on right
3cm on left
(i) Make a title block(rectangle) of size 65 mm high and 185 mm width on the right bottom side for title block, parts list

7. Why is the layout of sheet is necessary?
Layout of the drawing on the drawing sheet is necessary in order to make its reading easy and fast. The title blocks, parts list etc will provide all the required information.

8. List out the contents of title block.
The title block should contain the following information.
(i) Name of the institution
(ii) Title of drawing
(iii) Name, Branch, section and Roll no. of the student
(iv) Type of scale used
(v) Drawing number
(vi) Type of symbol for the method of projection

9. What do you mean by convention/ code?
The representation of any matter by some standard sign or symbol on the drawing is known as convention or code. The conventions make the drawing simple and easy to draw.

10. What do you understand by thickness of lines?
There are three distinct thickness of lines used in engineering drawing. These lines are specified as thick, medium and thin lines. The line specified as thick is usually 3 times thicker and the line specified as medium is 2 times thicker than a thin line.

Latest Engineering Drawing Interview Questions for freshers and Experienced pdf

30 [Top] Water Supply Engineering Objective Type Questions and Answers

Here are top 30 Water Supply Engineering Multiple choice questions and answers are given just below to them. These sample Water Supply Engineering objective type questions are framed by experts. who train for Learn Water Supply Engineering Online VIVA Questions to give you an idea of Water Supply Engineering mcqs which may be asked in interview. We have taken full care to give correct answers for all the questions. Do comment your thoughts. Happy Job Hunting!

1. If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three streams and duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is
A. 1880 kilo litres
B. 2880 kilo litres
C. 3880 kilo litres
D. 4880 kilo litres.
Ans: B

2. The fire demand of a city may be worked out by
A. Kuichling’s formula
B. Freeman formula
C. Under Writers formula
D. Bustan’s formula
E. All the above.
Ans: E

3. Aeration of water is done to remove
A. odour
B. colour
C. bacterias
D. hardness
E. turbidity.
Ans: A

4. The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
E. 35 times.
Ans: D

5. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove
A. odour
B. bacterias
C. turbidity
D. colour.
Ans: B

6. Sunlight
A. helps growth of bacterias
B. impedes growth of algae
C. increases dissolved oxygen content
D. reduces turbidity.
Ans: B

7. The expected discharge to be obtained from an open well sunk in coarse sand is 0.0059 cumec. If the working depression head of the well is 3 m, the minimum diameter of the well, is
A. 2 m
B. 2.25 m
C. 2.50 m
D. 2.75 m
E. 3.00 m.
Ans: E

8. Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period of
A. 7 years
B. 14 years
C. 21 years
D. 28 years
E. 35 years.
Ans: E

9. Time of concentration
A. is the time taken, for precipitation
B. duration of rainfall.
C. time taken for all the ran off to reach the drain
D. time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain.
Ans: D

10. Surge tanks are used
A. for storage water
B. to increase the velocity in a pipeline
C. as overflow valves
D. to guard against water hammer.
Ans: D

11. As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, is
A. 50 litres
B. 65 litres
C. 85 litres
D. 105 litres
E. 135 litres.
Ans: E

12. In slow sland filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to
A. 60 mg/litre
B. 75 mg/litre
C. 100 gm/litre
D. 150 mg/litre.
Ans: A

13. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be
A. nil
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Ans: A

14. Acidity in water is caused due to
A. Mineral acids
B. Free CO2
C. Iron sulphate
D. Aluminium sulphate
E. All the above.
Ans: E

15. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at
A. lower point
B. higher point
C. junction points
D. any where.
Ans: A

16. Corrosion of well pipes may not be reduced by
A. reducing the draw down and the pumping rate
B. reducing the flow velocity
C. using thicker pipes
D. using screens having larger area of openings
E. none of these.
Ans: D

17. Asbestos pipes are
A. light in weight and easy to transport
B. highly resistant to corrosion
C. high flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°
D. very much smooth and hydraulically efficient
E. all the above.
Ans: E

18. The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks is limited to
A. 2 m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
E. 6 m.
Ans: E

19. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to
A. calcium sulphate
B. magnesium sulphate
C. calcium nitrate
D. calcium bicarbonate
E. none of these.
Ans: D

20. For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly used non-empirical formula is
A. Darcy’s formula
B. Slichter’s formula
C. Hazen’s formula
D. Lacy’s formula.
Ans: A

21. The least thickness of class B cast iron (spun) pipe, is
A. 7.2 mm
B. 7.9 mm
C. 8.6 mm
D. 10 mm.
Ans: C

22. According to IS : 1172-1963, a minimum of 135 litres of water capita per day, is required for
A. Boarding schools
B. Nurses home and medical quarters
C. hostels
D. all the above.
Ans: D

23. The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of the stream water is 1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L. 1485 m to 1500 m, the gravity spring may be expected at the point of reduced level
A. 1500 m
B. 1505 m
C. 1475 m
D. 1485 m.
Ans: D

24. The factor affecting per capita demand, is
A. size of the city
B. climatic conditions
C. pressure in water mains
D. cost of water
E. all the above.
Ans: E

25. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The underground sources of water, is from
A. wells
B. springs
C. infiltration wells
D. storage reservoirs
E. none of these.
Ans: D

26. The specific retention is least in case of
A. Clay
B. Sand
C. Silt
D. Coarse gravel.
Ans: D

Real Time Water Supply Engineering - Civil Engineering Objective type Questions for freshers

60 [Top] Theory Of Structures Multiple Choice Questions PDF

Here are top 60 Theory Of Structures Multiple choice questions and answers are given just below to them. These sample Theory Of Structures objective type questions are framed by experts. who train for Learn Theory Of Structures Online VIVA Questions to give you an idea of Theory Of Structures mcqs which may be asked in interview. We have taken full care to give correct answers for all the questions. Do comment your thoughts. Happy Job Hunting!

Q No: 01 P=4²EI/L² is the equation of Euler’s crippling load if

A. Both the ends are fixed
B. Both the ends are hinged
C. One end is fixed and other end is free
D. One end is fixed and other end is hinged
ANS: A

Q No: 02 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The structural member subjected to compression and whose dimensions are small as
B. compared to its length, is called a stmt
The vertical compression members are generally known as columns or stanchions
C. Deflection in lateral direction of a long column, is generally known as buckling
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 03 0y/n [1 – a (1/r)²]is the empirical formula,
For calculating the allowable stress of long columns
known as

A. Straight line formula
B. Parabolic formula
C. Perry’s formula
D. Rankine’s formula
ANS: B

Q No: 04 Maximum principal stress theory for the failure of a material at elastic point, is known

A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Von Mises’ theory

ANS: C

Q No: 05 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The moment of inertia is calculated about the axis about which bending takes place

B. If tensile stress is less than axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress

C. If tensile stress is equal to axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress

D. All the above

ANS: D


Q No: 06 A composite beam is composed of two equal strips one of brass and other of steel. If the temperature is raised

A. Steel experiences tensile force

B. Brass experiences compressive force

C. Composite beam gets subjected to a couple

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 07 A shaft subjected to a bending moment M and a torque T, experiences

A. Maximum bending stress = 32M d3

B. Maximum shear stress = 16 T d3

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 08 A two hinged parabolic arch of span l and rise h carries a load varying from zero at the left end to
A. /4h thrust is
B. /8h
C. /12h
D. /16h

ANS: D

Q No: 09 The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two hinged semicircular arch of radius carrying

A. A uniforml 4/3
B.
C. end, is
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 10 Maximum strain theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known as

A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Haig’s theory

ANS: B

Q No: 11 Slenderness ratio of a long column, is

A. Area of cross-section divided by radius of gyration

B. Area of cross-section divided by least radius of gyration

C. Radius of gyration divided by area of cross-section

D. Length of column divided by least radius of gyration

ANS: D

Q No: 12 A close coil helical spring when subjected to a moment M having its axis along the axis of the helix

A. It is subjected to pure bending

B. Its mean diameter will decrease

C. Its number of coils will increase

D. All the above

ANS: A

Q No: 13 The ratio of the stresses produced by a suddenly applied load and by a gradually applied load on a bar, is

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 2

ANS: D

Q No: 14 Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known

A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Haig’s theory

ANS: A

Q No: 15 A cantilever of length is subjected to a bending moment at its free end. If EI is the flexural rigidity of the section, the deflection of the free end, is

A. ML/EI

B. ML/2EI

C. ML²/2EI

D. ML²/3EI

ANS: D

Q No: 16 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. For channels, the shear centre does not coincide its centroid

B. The point of intersection of the bending axis with the cross section of the beam, is called shear centre

C. For I sections, the shear centre coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 17 constant, depth of a cantilever of length of uniform strength loaded with Keeping breadth uniformly distributed load varies from zero at the free end and

A. 2w w l at the fixed end
B. l) at the fixed end
C. w l) at the fixed end
D. 3w l at the fixed end
ANS: B

Q No: 18 If a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over the entire span,

A. Horizontal thrust is wl2/8h

B. S.F. will be zero throughout

C. B.M. will be zero throughout

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 19 The force in BC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

A. 3.0 t compression

B. 3.0 t tension

C. t tension

D. t compression

ANS: C

Q No: 20 P = / L² is the equation for Euler’s crippling load if

A. Both the ends are fixed

B. Both the ends are hinged

C. One end is fixed and other end is free

D. One end is fixed and other end is hinged

ANS: B

Q No: 21 The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is

A. Zero

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

ANS: B

Q No: 22 The forces in the members of simple trusses, may be analysed by

A. Graphical method

B. Method of joints

C. Method of sections

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 23 A simply supported beam A carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam B carries the same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of the maximum deflections of the beams A and B, will be

A. 2/3

B. 3/2

C. 5/8

D. 8/5

ANS: D

Q No: 24 A road of uniform cross-section A and length L force P. The Young’s Modulus E of the material, is

A. E = /A. L

B. E =/P. L

C. E = P. L/

D. E = P. A/ ANS: C

Q No: 25 In case of a simply supported I-section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is

A. L/2

B. L/3

C. L/4

D. L/5

ANS: D

Q No: 26 The yield moment of a cross section is defined as the moment that will just produce the yield stress in

A. The outer most fibre of the section

B. The inner most fibre of the section

C. The neutral fibre of the section

D. The fibre everywhere

ANS: A

Q No: 27 If Ix and Iy are the moments of inertia of a section about X and Y axes, the polar moment of inertia of the section, is

A. (IX + IY)/2

B. (IX – IY)/2

C. IX + IY

D. (I /I )

ANS:XY Option C

Q No: 28 A simply supported beam carries varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be

A. wa/27

B. wa²/27

C. w²a

D. wa²

ANS: D

Q No: 29 If E, N, K and 1/m are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and Poisson ratio of the material, the following relationship holds good

A. E = 3K (1 – 2/m)

B. E = 2N (1 + 1/m)

C. (3/2)K (1 – 2/m) = N (1 + 1/m)

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 30 The forces acting on the bar as shown in the given figure introduce

A. Compressive stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these ANS: C

Q No: 31 Gradually applied static loads do not change with time their

A. Magnitude

B. Direction

C. Point of application

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 32 The tangential component of stre obtained by multiplying the normal stress by

A.

B.

C.

D. sin2

ANS: D

Q No: 33 A body is said to be in equilibrium if

A. It moves horizontally

B. It moves vertically

C. It rotates about its C.G.

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 34 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly proportional to

A. Modulus of rigidity

B. Angle of twist

C. Reciprocal of the length of the shaft

D. Moment of inertia of the shaft section ANS: D

Q No: 35 The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure introduce

A. Compressive stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 36 The ratio of circumferential stress to the longitudinal stress in the walls of a cylindrical shell, due to flowing liquid, is

A. ½

B. 1

C. 1½

D. 2

ANS: D

Q No: 37 The load on a spring per unit deflection, is called

A. Stiffness

B. Proof resilience

C. Proof stress

D. Proof load

ANS: A

Q No: 38 A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross -section is 3500 mm2and that of brass bar is 3000 mm2. These are subjected to a compressive load 100,000 N. If Eb = 0.2 MN/mm2 and Eb = 0.1 MN/mm2, the stresses developed are:

A. b = 10 N/mm2 s = 20 N/mm 2
B. b = 8 N/mm2 s = 16 N/mm2
C. b = 6 N/mm2 s = 12 N/mm2
D. b = 5 N/mm2 s = 10 N/mm2
ANS: A

Q No: 39 A close coil helical spring of mean diameter D consists of n coils of diameter d. If it carries an axial load W, the energy stored in the spring, is

A. 4WD²n/d4N

B. 4W²Dn/d4N

C. 4W²D3n/d4N

D. 4W²D3n²/d4N

ANS: C

Q No: 40 The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. Zero ANS: C

Q No: 41 1 2respectively, the

A. 1 2 2
B. 1 – 2 cos2
C. 1 2
D. 1 2) si

ANS: B

Q No: 42 The moment of inertia of a triangular section (height h, base b) about its base, is

A. bh²/12

B. b²h/12

C. bh3/12

D. b3h/12

 ANS: C

Q No: 43 Shear centre of a half circular section of radius and of constant thickness, lies at a distance of from the centre where is

A.

B.

C.

D.

ANS: D

Q No: 44 The assumption in the theory of bending of beams is:

A. Material is homogeneous

B. Material is isotropic

C. Young’s modulus is same in tension as well as in compression

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 45 For determining the force in the member AB of the truss shown in the given figure by method of sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the moments are taken about

A. Joint C

B. Joint B

C. Joint D

D. Joint A

ANS: C

Q No: 46 A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B is fixed. The ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A, is

A.

B. /2

C. /3

D. /4

ANS: B

Q No: 47 The ratio of crippling loads of a column having both the ends fixed to the column having both the ends hinged, is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

ANS: D

Q No: 48 A load of 1960 N is raised at the end of a steel wire. The minimum diameter of the wire so that stress in the wire does not exceed 100 N/mm2 is:

A. 4.0 mm

B. 4.5 mm

C. 5.0 mm

D. 5.5 mm

ANS: C

Q No: 49 of th

A. 45°

B. 30°

C. 60°

D. 90°

ANS: A

Q No: 50 The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over entire span of a cantilever of length l and of flexural rigidly EI, is

A. wl3/3EI

B. wl4/3EI

C. wl4/8EI

D. wl4/12EI

ANS: C

Q No: 51 A compound truss may be formed by connecting two simple rigid frames, by

A. Two bars

B. Three bars

C. Three parallel bars

D. Three bars intersecting at a point

ANS: B

Q No: 52 The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure introduce

A. Compressive stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 53 A spring of mean radius 40 mm contains 8 action coils of steel (N = 80000 N/mm2), 4 mm in diameter. The clearance between the coils being 1 mm when unloaded, the minimum compressive load to remove the clearance, is

A. 25 N

B. 30 N

C. 35 N

D. 40 N

ANS: C

Q No: 54 If a solid shaft (diameter 20 cm, length 400 cm, N = 0.8 × 105 N/mm2) when subjected to a twisting moment, produces maximum shear stress of 50 N/mm 2, the angle of twist in radians, is

A. 0.001

B. 0.002

C. 0.0025

D. 0.003

ANS: C

Q No: 55 The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being permanently distorted, is called

A. Stiffness

B. Proof resilience

C. Proof stress

D. Proof load

ANS: B

Q No: 56 To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the given figure a section is passed through BD, CD and CE, and the moments are taken about

A. A joint

B. B joint

C. C joint

D. D joint ANS: C

Q No: 57 The strain energy due to volumetric strain

A. Is directly proportional to the volume

B. Is directly proportional to the square of exerted pressure

C. Is inversely proportional to Bulk modulus

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 58  A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an isolated load W at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same tensile load. The ratio of the maximum deflection to the elongation, is

A. L/d

B. L/2d

C. (L/2d)²

D. (L/3d)²

ANS: C

Q No: 59 A simply supported beam which carries a uniformly distributed load has two equal overhangs. To have maximum B.M. produced in the beam least possible, the ratio of the length of the overhang to the total length of the beam, is

A. 0.207

B. 0.307

C. 0.407

D. 0.508

ANS: A

Q No: 60 In the truss shown in given figure the force in member DC is

A. 100 t compressive

B. 100 t tensile

C. Zero

D. Indeterminate

ANS: C

Real Time Theory Of Structures - Civil Engineering Objective type Questions for freshers